🃏 Flashcards
All Flashcards · 500 cards
Which artery most commonly supplies the SA node?
List the four rotator cuff muscles (SITS).
Which nerve provides sensation to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?
What structures form the common bile duct?
Which muscle is the only abductor of the vocal cords?
At what vertebral level do the renal arteries typically arise?
Which nerve roots contribute to the Phrenic nerve?
What nerve is susceptible to injury in a fibular neck fracture?
Where is the apex beat normally palpated?
Which nerve is at risk during ligation of the inferior thyroid artery?
What are the three parts of the small intestine in order?
Which nerve supplies the thenar eminence muscles (LOAF)?
Which lobe of the brain contains Broca's area?
How many lobes does the right lung have?
Name the three branches of the aortic arch from right to left.
Which artery provides the main blood supply to the lesser curvature of the stoma…
Which cranial nerve provides the afferent limb of the pupillary light reflex?
Which ligament prevents the femur from sliding posterior to the tibia?
Where are the three physiological constrictions of the ureter?
Where does the Great Saphenous vein drain into the deep system?
At what vertebral level does the adult spinal cord typically terminate?
Which structure passes through the diaphragm at the level of T10?
Which nerve is found in the bicipital groove of the humerus?
What is the transition point between the upper and lower anal canal?
Which nerve exits the skull via the foramen ovale?
What is the embryological origin of the adrenal medulla?
Name a site of portosystemic anastomosis.
Which muscle is the primary inverter of the foot?
The tail of the pancreas lies in contact with which organ?
Which vessel connects the carotid and vertebrobasilar systems?
Where does the left testicular vein drain?
At which rib level does the pleura end in the mid-axillary line?
What is the primary action of the Gluteus Medius?
What are the three ossicles in the middle ear?
Where is McBurney's point located?
Which heart valve has only two cusps?
Which cranial nerve provides motor supply to the Sternocleidomastoid?
Name the bone that forms the floor of the anatomical snuffbox.
Where does the thoracic duct usually drain into the venous system?
Is the ascending colon intraperitoneal or retroperitoneal?
Which dermatome corresponds to the level of the umbilicus?
A 'winged scapula' is caused by damage to which nerve?
What is the name of the smooth triangular area on the internal bladder floor?
What nerve travels alongside the Small Saphenous vein in the calf?
Which muscle does the Trochlear nerve (CN IV) innervate?
Which ligament maintains the head of the radius in the radial notch of the ulna?
What is the arterial supply to the embryonic midgut?
Between which two layers is the Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) found?
Which interossei muscles are responsible for finger abduction?
What ligament contains the uterine artery?
Which rotator cuff muscle is responsible for the first 15 degrees of shoulder ab…
What are the boundaries of the Calot's triangle?
Which cranial nerve exits the skull via the stylomastoid foramen?
The coronary sinus drains into which heart chamber?
What are the three most common sites of ureteric constriction?
Which nerve is found within the Guyon's canal?
At which vertebral level does the trachea bifurcate (the carina)?
What is the content of the inguinal canal in females?
At what vertebral level does the adult spinal cord typically terminate (conus me…
Which nerve is at risk during ligation of the superior thyroid artery?
In which part of the duodenum is the Major Duodenal Papilla located?
The middle meningeal artery is a branch of which larger artery?
Weakness in foot eversion suggests damage to which nerve?
What is the venous drainage of the left adrenal vein?
Name the 5 arteries forming the Circle of Willis.
At what vertebral level does the esophagus pierce the diaphragm?
Which muscle is the primary flexor of the hip?
Where does the thoracic duct empty into the venous system?
What muscle forms the wall of the urinary bladder?
Which nerve provides parasympathetic innervation to the foregut and midgut?
The sustenaculum tali is a feature of which bone?
Name the three branches of the aortic arch from right to left.
What is the only muscle to abduct the vocal cords?
Which ligament prevents anterior displacement of the tibia on the femur?
What is the arterial supply to the rectum above the pectinate line?
Which nerve passes through the parotid gland but does not innervate it?
Injury to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus (C5-C6) leads to what clinical …
Which carpal bone is most commonly fractured in a fall on an outstretched hand?
The popliteal artery is a continuation of which artery?
At the mid-axillary line, what is the lower border of the lung and pleura?
What three bones fuse to form the acetabulum?
The uterine artery travels within which ligament?
Damage to which nerve causes 'Winged Scapula'?
What are the components of the 'Unhappy Triad' knee injury?
The tail of the pancreas is located within which ligament?
Which structure connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx?
What ligament connects the laminae of adjacent vertebrae?
Where is the auscultatory point for the Mitral valve?
Which zone of the prostate is most commonly involved in cancer?
What structure connects the two hemispheres of the cerebellum?
Which nerve is compressed in Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?
Which three structures form the Portal Triad?
Which spinal levels provide sympathetic output to the body?
Injury to the Common Peroneal Nerve at the fibular neck results in what?
What is the lymphatic drainage of the testes?
Which nerve provides taste sensation to the posterior 1/3rd of the tongue?
What bony structure houses the pituitary gland?
What are the three characteristic features of the large intestine on gross anato…
The Great Saphenous Vein drains into which vessel?
Which nerve roots are tested by the Achilles (ankle) reflex?
What effect does constriction of the efferent arteriole have on GFR and RPF?
Where is the V/Q ratio highest in the upright lung?
What is the primary determinant of cardiac stroke volume according to Frank-Star…
Which enzyme converts Norepinephrine to Epinephrine in the adrenal medulla?
What are the three primary stimulants of the gastric parietal cell?
Which ion is primarily responsible for the repolarisation phase of an action pot…
Which way does an increase in 2,3-BPG shift the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation …
What is the primary function of the Loop of Henle?
Where are the high-pressure baroreceptors located?
What molecule binds to Calcium to initiate skeletal muscle contraction?
What is Functional Residual Capacity (FRC)?
How does Parathyroid Hormone (PTH) affect renal phosphate handling?
Where is the primary site of iron absorption in the GI tract?
What ion influx triggers neurotransmitter release at the presynaptic terminal?
What hormone surge triggers ovulation?
On which segment of the nephron and which receptor does ADH primarily act?
How is the majority of CO2 transported in the blood?
Define Cardiac Output.
Which thyroid hormone is more biologically active, T3 or T4?
What role do bile salts play in lipid digestion?
Which neurotransmitter is used by all preganglionic autonomic neurons?
What is the role of Von Willebrand Factor (vWF) in platelet plug formation?
What are the two main effects of Aldosterone on the distal nephron?
What characterizes Type 1 (Slow Twitch) muscle fibres?
What is the formula for Pulse Pressure?
Define Pulmonary Compliance.
Which glucose transporter (GLUT) is insulin-dependent?
What are the two primary actions of CCK?
Where is CSF primarily produced?
Which complement component is the primary opsonin?
If the radius of a vessel is halved, what happens to the resistance?
Where is Renin produced and in response to what?
What is the Bohr Effect?
What is the metabolic effect of glucagon on the liver?
What is the difference between a monosynaptic and polysynaptic reflex?
Where is Vitamin B12 absorbed?
What hormone inhibits prolactin release?
What percentage of filtered sodium is reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubu…
Which part of the cardiac conduction system has the slowest conduction velocity?
What is the role of Pulmonary Surfactant?
What maintains the sodium and potassium gradients across a cell membrane?
Where is Erythropoietin (EPO) primarily produced?
Name the two hormones released by the posterior pituitary.
Which autonomic system stimulates watery, enzyme-rich saliva?
What causes the 'plateau phase' (Phase 2) of the ventricular action potential?
What is Physiologic Dead Space?
Why is Inulin clearance used to measure GFR?
When is cortisol secretion usually at its peak?
Which part of the brain acts as the body's thermostat?
How is Ejection Fraction (EF) calculated?
What does Frank-Starling's Law states regarding stroke volume?
Where is Renin secreted from in the kidney?
Definition of Pulmonay Compliance?
Which ion is primarily responsible for the repolarisation phase of an action pot…
What is the primary function of Parietal cells?
Where is Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) synthesized and where is it released?
Phase 4 depolarization in the SA node is primarily due to which current?
Why is Inulin used to measure GFR?
What does a 'Right' shift in the Oxygen-Dissociation Curve represent?
Primary mechanism of Parathyroid Hormone (PTH) in the bone?
Primary excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS?
Formula for Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) using Systolic/Diastolic?
Definition of Physiological Dead Space?
Main triggers for Cholecystokinin (CCK) release?
Main site of sodium reabsorption in the nephron?
Which thyroid hormone is secreted in larger quantities, and which is more potent…
The role of Calcium in skeletal muscle contraction?
Location of high-pressure baroreceptors?
Cells responsible for surfactant production?
Pre-ganglionic neurotransmitter for both Sympathetic and Parasympathetic systems…
Hormone surge responsible for triggering ovulation?
Primary site of iron absorption in the GI tract?
Part of the loop of Henle impermeable to water?
Which ion is factor IV in the clotting cascade?
Primary determinant of left ventricular afterload?
Effect of insulin on potassium levels?
What is Functional Residual Capacity (FRC)?
Glial cells that help form the Blood-Brain Barrier?
What stimulates gallbladder contraction?
Primary mechanism of Aldosterone in the distal tubule?
Difference between Primary and Secondary Active Transport?
Force that 'pulls' fluid into the capillary from the interstitium?
Normal pulmonary vascular response to hypoxia?
Which enzyme converts Norepinephrine to Epinephrine?
Where is the B12-Intrinsic Factor complex absorbed?
What does the PR interval represent?
Kidney response to chronic metabolic acidosis?
Primary stimulus for Erythropoietin (EPO) release?
Type 1 muscle fiber characteristic?
Primary site of Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) production?
Central chemoreceptors respond most sensitively to changes in what?
Which neurotransmitter inhibits Prolactin release?
If radius of a vessel is halved, resistance increases by what factor?
At what plasma glucose concentration does glycosuria typically begin?
Tonicity of saliva compared to plasma?
What causes the S2 heart sound?
Contents of platelet alpha-granules?
Describe V/Q ratio at the apex of the lung?
Site of steroid hormone synthesis in the cell?
Main mediator of Growth Hormone's anabolic effects?
First microscopic sign of MI (4–12 hours)?
Pathognomonic finding in Minimal Change Disease on EM?
Histological change in Barrett Esophagus?
Stage of lobar pneumonia characterized by RBCs, neutrophils, and fibrin in alveo…
Differentiating feature of Follicular Carcinoma vs Adenoma?
Characteristic cell type in Hodgkin Lymphoma?
Most common site of internal metastasis for prostate adenocarcinoma?
Extracellular vs Intracellular pathology in Alzheimer's?
Most important prognostic factor for primary cutaneous melanoma?
Radiological sign of periosteal elevation in osteosarcoma?
Mechanism of Type II Hypersensitivity?
Eosinophilic inclusions in hepatocytes of alcoholics?
Pathognomonic myocardial finding in Acute Rheumatic Fever?
Classic 'Lumpy-Bumpy' appearance on IF in what condition?
Key electrolyte change leading to irreversible cell death?
Genetic sequence of the Adenoma-Carcinoma pathway?
Histological hallmark of Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis (IPF)?
Classic pathology triad in Multiple Myeloma?
Specific glomerular lesion in diabetic nephropathy?
First morphologic sign of atherosclerosis?
Histological marker in the Substantia Nigra in Parkinson's?
Necrosis type seen in brain ischemia and abscesses?
Copper accumulation occurs primarily in which three locations?
Histological feature of invasive lobular carcinoma?
Stain used to identify amyloid, showing apple-green birefringence?
Small bowel biopsy findings in Celiac disease?
Lung cancer most strongly associated with non-smokers?
Vessel layers affected in Giant Cell Arteritis?
What cell type defines chronic inflammation?
Common site and appearance of endometriosis in the ovary?
Cytogenetic translocation pathognomonic for CML?
Common histologic subtype of RCC?
Shape and birefringence of Gout crystals?
Characteristic lung lesion in primary TB?
Pheochromocytoma histology finding?
Pathological hallmark of MS in the CNS?
Difference between Keloid and Hypertrophic scar?
Serum marker used to screen for HCC in cirrhotic patients?
Major predisposing pathology for aortic dissection?
Transmural inflammation and skip lesions are characteristics of?
Blood film findings in Iron Deficiency Anemia?
Typical components of a Wilms tumor (Nephroblastoma)?
Microscopic finding in lung tissue of asbestos-exposed workers?
Key histological features of Psoriasis?
The 'Executioner' enzymes of apoptosis?
Vegetation description in Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis?
Depth of inflammation in Ulcerative Colitis?
Characteristic calcified structures in Meningiomas?
Histological features of Hashimoto Thyroiditis?
Cytogenetic translocation in Ewing Sarcoma?
Most important prognostic factor in primary cutaneous melanoma?
Earliest macroscopically visible lesion of atherosclerosis?
Name of the iron-coated asbestos fibers found in alveolar macrophages?
Classic histological triad of Coeliac disease on duodenal biopsy?
Defining light microscopy finding in Minimal Change Disease (MCD)?
Key histological feature of Hashimoto thyroiditis?
Characteristic RBC morphology in Multiple Myeloma?
Pathological hallmark of Multiple Sclerosis in the CNS?
Name of bony outgrowths at the DIP joints in Osteoarthritis?
Metaplastic change seen in Barrett’s Oesophagus?
Most significant risk factor for Endometrial Hyperplasia/Carcinoma?
Most common viral cause of myocarditis in developed nations?
Definition of cirrhosis based on morphology?
Classic presentation of IgA Nephropathy (Berger’s Disease)?
Histological type of granuloma in Sarcoidosis?
Common site of origin for Prostate Carcinoma?
Constituents of Neurofibrillary Tangles (NFTs)?
Rule of 10s for Pheochromocytoma?
Pathognomonic cell type in Hodgkin Lymphoma?
Auspitz sign in Psoriasis describes what?
Distinguishing feature of Crohn's inflammation vs Ulcerative Colitis?
Target of antibodies in Goodpasture Syndrome?
Characteristic myocardial lesion in acute Rheumatic Heart Disease?
Primary protein found in Lewy Bodies?
Radiological sign of periosteal elevation in Osteosarcoma?
Classic glomerular lesion in Diabetic Nephropathy?
Defective protein/process in Wilson disease?
Emphysema pattern associated with Alpha-1 Antitrypsin deficiency?
Typical indices for Iron Deficiency Anaemia?
Tumour marker used for monitoring recurrence of CRC?
Antibody responsible for Graves Disease?
Microscopic finding in the urine sediment of ATN?
Classical histological appearance of Basal Cell Carcinoma?
Cytogenetic hallmark of Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia?
Type of necrosis associated with Tuberculosis?
Classic histological finding in Glioblastoma Multiforme (GBM)?
Small cell lung cancer is often associated with which paraneoplastic syndrome?
Cytoplasmic inclusions in hepatocytes in alcoholic hepatitis?
Five cardinal signs of acute inflammation?
What are Roth spots?
Most common type of malignant ovarian tumour?
Description of gout crystals under polarized light?
Distinguishing nuclear features of Papillary Thyroid Cancer?
Genotype of a complete hydatidiform mole?
Key intracellular protease family involved in apoptosis?
Most common histological subtype of Renal Cell Carcinoma?
Metabolic abnormality in Paget's disease of bone?
Point mutation responsible for Sickle Cell Anaemia?
Typical CSF findings in Bacterial Meningitis?
Pathophysiological cause of Hirschsprung disease?
Mechanism of action (MOA) of Ramipril
MOA of Warfarin
MOA of Metformin
Salbutamol MOA
Omeprazole MOA
Mechanism of Gentamicin
Sodium Valproate MOA
Atorvastatin MOA
Furosemide MOA
Levodopa mechanism
Alendronate MOA
Dabigatran MOA
Fluoxetine MOA
Amiodarone (Vaughan Williams Class)
Ipratropium MOA
Clarithromycin MOA
Aspirin MOA (Antiplatelet dose)
Spironolactone MOA
Vancomycin MOA
Glyceryl Trinitrate (GTN) MOA
Ondansetron MOA
Gliclazide MOA
Ciprofloxacin MOA
Phenytoin MOA
Bendroflumethiazide MOA
Bisoprolol MOA
Trimethoprim MOA
Methotrexate MOA
Lactulose MOA
Rivaroxaban MOA
Montelukast MOA
Diazepam MOA
Levothyroxine MOA
Levonorgestrel (in COC) MOA
Amoxicillin MOA
Amlodipine MOA
Dapagliflozin MOA
Ibuprofen MOA
Gabapentin MOA
Digoxin MOA
Haloperidol MOA
Losartan MOA
Heparin MOA
Doxycycline MOA
Liraglutide MOA
Ranitidine MOA
Allopurinol MOA
Adenosine MOA (in SVT)
Aciclovir MOA
Donepezil MOA
Mechanism of action for organic nitrates (e.g., GTN)
Common local side effect of inhaled corticosteroids (ICS)
Mechanism of Omeprazole
Specific side effect of Phenytoin (gums)
Mechanism of Sulfonylureas (e.g., Gliclazide)
Site of action of Furosemide
List three signs of lithium toxicity
Two primary toxicities of Gentamicin
Mechanism of Digoxin
Mechanism of Allopurinol
Warfarin mechanism of action
Mechanism of Salbutamol
Administration instruction for Alendronic Acid
Reason for dry cough in ACEI use
Why is Carbidopa given with Levodopa?
Classic reaction to rapid Vancomycin infusion
Electrolyte abnormality: Bendroflumethiazide
Supplement required during Methotrexate therapy
Antidote for Heparin overdose
Mechanism of Atorvastatin
Wait time when switching Fluoxetine to MAOI
Mechanism of Erythromycin
Mechanism of Ondansetron
Serious side effect of Carbimazole to warn patients about
Mechanism of the Progestogen-only pill (POP)
Drug interaction: Metronidazole and Alcohol
Absolute contraindication for non-selective beta-blockers
Mechanism of Diazepam
Primary mechanism and class of Spironolactone
Contraindication for Doxycycline
Monitoring required for Amiodarone (long-term)
Mechanism of Lactulose
Toxic metabolite of Paracetamol
Mechanism of Rivaroxaban
Mechanism of extrapyramidal side effects (EPSEs)
Mechanism of Dapagliflozin
Mechanism of Ipratropium
Mechanism of Sumatriptan
Mechanism of Latanoprost
Antidote for Ethylene Glycol / Methanol poisoning
Black box warning for Ciprofloxacin
Difference between Dihydropyridines and Non-dihydropyridines
Crucial monitoring for female patients on Roaccutane
Definition of 'treatment-resistant' schizophrenia for Clozapine use
Mesalazine mechanism (5-ASA)
Mechanism of Tramadol
Indication for Donepezil
Metformin and surgery/contrast
Electrolyte abnormality associated with Trimethoprim
Define 'First-pass metabolism'
ECG criteria for STEMI diagnosis (Standard leads)
Gold standard imaging for stable patients with suspected PE
Classic barium swallow appearance in Achalasia
Classic motor triad of Parkinson's Disease
Common electrolyte abnormalities in primary adrenal insufficiency
Diagnostic triad of Nephrotic Syndrome
Most specific autoantibody for Rheumatoid Arthritis
The CRAB acronym for Multiple Myeloma features
Major Duke Criteria for Infective Endocarditis
Score used to assess stroke risk in AF
ABCDE criteria for pigmented lesions
CURB-65 score components
Diagnostic test to differentiate Cranial vs Nephrogenic DI
First-line serology for Coeliac Disease
Lhermitte's sign description
First-line pharmacological management for HFrEF
Classic CSF findings in bacterial meningitis
Iron study profile in Iron Deficiency Anemia
Staging of CKD based on GFR (G3a/G3b cut-off)
Ocular sign of Wilson's Disease
Polarizing microscopy findings for Gout
Most common cause of Hyperthyroidism in the UK
Adrenaline dose and route for adult anaphylaxis
Classic murmur of Aortic Stenosis
Objective test findings for asthma diagnosis (Adults)
Time window for thrombolysis (Alteplase) in ischemic stroke
Macroscopic distribution of Ulcerative Colitis
ECG changes seen in Hyperkalemia
Stain used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis
First-line screening test for Phaeochromocytoma
Neurological complication of Vitamin B12 deficiency
Most sensitive screening antibody for SLE
First-rank symptoms (Schneider’s)
Classic ECG finding in acute pericarditis
Definition of COPD on spirometry
Score used to predict mortality in Cirrhosis
Pathophysiology of Myasthenia Gravis
Most specific enzyme for Acute Pancreatitis diagnosis
CD4 count threshold for AIDS-defining illnesses
Initial screening tests for Cushing's (3 options)
KDIGO criteria for Stage 1 AKI (Creatinine)
Monitoring therapy for Warfarin
Visual disturbance associated with Digoxin toxicity
Genetic association for Ankylosing Spondylitis
Light's Criteria for Exudative Effusion
First-line treatment for Generalized Tonic-Clonic Seizures (UK)
Hallmark autoantibody for PBC
The Sepsis Six (Take 3, Give 3)
Classic inheritance pattern of Hereditary Hemochromatosis
Distinctive ECG feature of WPW Syndrome
Classic physical finding of Mitral Stenosis on auscultation?
Diagnostic gold standard for Bronchiectasis?
Classic triad of Parkinson's Disease symptoms?
First-line screening test for Celiac Disease in adults?
Initial screening test for suspected Cushing's Syndrome?
Classic CRAB criteria for Multiple Myeloma?
Polarizing microscopy findings in Gout?
Name of the early localized rash in Lyme Disease?
Triad of clinical findings in Nephrotic Syndrome?
First-line dose and route of Adrenaline for adult anaphylaxis?
Standard imaging for suspected stable Aortic Dissection?
ECG findings most commonly associated with PE?
What is Lhermitte’s sign?
Serum marker highly specific for Primary Biliary Cholangitis (PBC)?
Classic electrolyte abnormalities in Addison's Disease?
Test used to confirm Hereditary Spherocytosis (HS)?
Antibody most specific for CREST syndrome (Limited Scleroderma)?
Empirical antibiotic for adult meningitis (UK guidelines)?
Definition of AKI Stage 1 by creatinine criteria?
What does the CHA2DS2-VASc score assess?
Diagnostic FeNO level suggestive of asthma in adults (NICE)?
Mechanism of Myasthenia Gravis?
Classic barium swallow finding in Achalasia?
Differences between Cranial and Nephrogenic DI on water deprivation test?
Classic lab findings in Von Willebrand Disease?
Clinical presentation of PMR?
What are Janeway lesions?
Most common extra-renal manifestation of ADPKD?
First-line pharmacological management of HFrEF (UK)?
Auscultatory finding classic for IPF?
Classic triad of Wernicke's Encephalopathy?
Management of acute severe Ulcerative Colitis (UK)?
Pre-operative medication order for Phaeochromocytoma?
Serum ferritin level diagnostic of iron deficiency?
Classic radiographic finding in advanced Ankylosing Spondylitis?
CD4 count threshold for starting PCP prophylaxis?
First-line treatment to protect the heart in severe hyperkalaemia?
ECG triad for WPW syndrome?
Management of primary spontaneous pneumothorax >2cm in adult?
Medication given to prevent vasospasm in SAH?
Ocular sign of Wilson's Disease?
Preferred treatment for Graves' disease in first trimester of pregnancy?
Typical coagulation profile in DIC?
Classic triad of Reactive Arthritis (Reiter's Syndrome)?
Gold standard for diagnosing Malaria?
Autoantibody found in Goodpasture's Syndrome?
ECG findings in acute Pericarditis?
Classic chest X-ray finding in Stage 1 Sarcoidosis?
Classic CSF finding in GBS?
What is the trigger for Hepatorenal Syndrome type 1?